Any thoughts on this scenario? would P1 and P2 qualify as double peak (supposedly a bullish formation), and is it in your opinion consistent with the later emerging upward trend (double channel)?
As I understand it, a prerequisite for a bullish development is the high traded volume at Peak2 (bottom).
Any opinions and contributions much appreciated!
As I understand it, a prerequisite for a bullish development is the high traded volume at Peak2 (bottom).
Any opinions and contributions much appreciated!